SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES

This part prescribes special air traffic rules for operating aircraft in certain areas described in this part, unless otherwise authorized by air traffic control.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft operating in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is designated as that airspace extending upward from the surface to the upper limit of each of the segments described in § 93.55. It is bounded by a line beginning at Point MacKenzie, extending westerly along the bank of Knik Arm to a point intersecting the 350° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT; thence north to intercept the 5.2-mile arc centered on the geographical center of Anchorage, Alaska, ATCT; thence counterclockwise along that arc to its intersection with a line bearing 180° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road; thence due north to O'Malley Road; thence east along O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis Parkway; thence northerly along Lake Otis Parkway to its intersection with Abbott Road; thence east along Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road; thence north to its intersection with Tudor Road; thence easterly along Tudor Road to its intersection with Muldoon Road; thence northerly along Muldoon Road to the intersection of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and parallel to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half mile east of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and parallel to Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline to lat. 61°17′13″ N., long. 149°37′35″ W.; thence west along lat. 61°17′13″ N., to long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence north along long. 149°43′08″ W., to lat. 61°17′30″ N.; thence to lat. 61°17′58″ N., long 149°44′08″ W.; thence to lat. 61°19′10″ N., long. 149°46′44″ W.; thence north along long. 149°46′44″ W., to intercept the 4.7-mile radius arc centered on Elmendorf Air Force Base (AFB), Alaska; thence counterclockwise along the 4.7-mile radius arc to its intersection with the west bank of Knik Arm; thence southerly along the west bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning.

[Docket 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, Apr. 9, 1999]

The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is subdivided as follows:

(a) International segment. That area from the surface to and including 4,100 feet MSL, within a 5.2-mile radius of the Anchorage International ATCT; excluding that airspace east of the 350° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT and north of the 090° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT and east of a line bearing 180° and 360° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road and the airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 600 feet MSL, south of lat. 61°08′28″ N.

(b) Merrill segment. That area from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence direct to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the intersection of the Glenn Highway and Muldoon Road; thence south along Muldoon Road to Tudor Road; thence west along Tudor Road to the new Seward Highway; thence direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to Point MacKenzie; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning.

(c) Lake Hood segment. That area from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point MacKenzie; thence direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to the intersection of Tudor Road and the new Seward Highway; thence south along the new Seward Highway to the 090° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT; thence west direct to the Anchorage International ATCT; thence north along the 350° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT to the north bank of Knik arm; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning.

(d) Elmendorf segment. That area from the surface to and including 3,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the intersection of the 4.7-mile radius of Elmendorf AFB; thence clockwise along the 4.7-mile radius of Elmendorf AFB to long. 149°46′44″ W.; thence south along long. 149°46′44″ W. to lat. 61°19′10″ N.; thence to lat. 61°17′58″ N., long. 149°44′08″ W.; thence to lat. 61°17′30″ N., long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence south along long. 149°43′08″ W. to the Glenn Highway; thence south and west along the Glenn Highway to Muldoon Road; thence direct to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the point of beginning.

(e) Bryant segment. That area from the surface to and including 2,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at lat. 61°17′13″ N., long. 149°37′35″ W.; thence west along lat. 61°17′13″ N., to long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence south along long. 149°43′08″ W., to the Glenn Highway; thence north and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and parallel to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half mile east of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and parallel to Bryant Airport runway 16/34 extended centerline to the point of beginning.

(f) Seward Highway segment. That area from the surface to and including 4,100 feet MSL, within a line beginning at the intersection of a line bearing 180° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road, and O'Malley Road; thence east along O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis Park Way, lat. 61°07′23″ N., long 149°50′03″ W.; thence northerly along Lake Otis Park Way to its intersection with Abbott Road, lat. 61°08′14″ N., long. 149°50′03″ W.; thence east along Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road, lat. 61°08′14″ N., long. 149°48′16″ W.; thence due north to intersect with Tudor Road, lat. 61°10′51″ N., long. 149°48′16″ W.; thence west along Tudor Road to its intersection with the new Seward Highway, lat. 61°10′51″ N., long. 149°51′38″ W.; thence south along the new Seward Highway to its intersection with a line bearing 180° and 360° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road; thence south to the point of beginning.

[Docket 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, Apr. 9, 1999]

(a) Each person operating an aircraft to, from, or on an airport within the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft according to the rules set forth in this section and §§ 93.59, 93.61, 93.63, 93.65, 93.67, or 93.68 as applicable, unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC.

(b) Each person operating an airplane within the Anchorage, Alaska Terminal Area shall conform to the flow of traffic depicted on the appropriate aeronautical charts.

(c) Each person operating a helicopter shall operate it in a manner so as to avoid the flow of airplanes.

(d) Except as provided in § 93.65 (d) and (e), and § 93.67 (b), each person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft only within the designated segment containing the arrival or departure airport.

(e) Except as provided in §§ 93.63 (d) and 93.67 (b), each person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall maintain two-way radio communications with the ATCT serving the segment containing the arrival or departure airport.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.

(b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or less within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.

(b) Each person operating an airplane within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 600 feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.

(b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,200 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or less within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(d) Whenever the Merrill ATCT is not operating, each person operating an aircraft either in that portion of the Merrill segment north of midchannel of Knik Arm, or in the Seward Highway segment at or below 1200 feet MSL, shall contact Anchorage Approach Control for wake turbulence and other advisories. Aircraft operating within the remainder of the segment should self-announce intentions on the Merrill Field CTAF.

(a) Each person operating a turbine-powered aircraft within this segment shall operate that aircraft at an altitude of at least 1,700 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(b) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered aircraft) at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,200 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(c) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered aircraft) at a speed of 105 knots or less within the segment shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 800 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(d) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate that aircraft at an altitude between 1,500 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL within that portion of the International and Lake Hood segments lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.

(e) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate that aircraft at an altitude between 900 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL within that portion of the Merrill segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.

(f) A person operating in VFR conditions, at or below 600 feet MSL, north of a line beginning at the intersection of Farrell Road and the long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence west along Farrell Road to the east end of Sixmile Lake; thence west along a line bearing on the middle of Lake Lorraine to the northwest bank of Knik Arm; is not required to establish two-way radio communications with ATC.

[Docket 29029, 64 FR 14977, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, Apr. 9, 1999]

(a) Each person operating an airplane to or from the Bryant Airport shall conform to the flow of traffic shown on the appropriate aeronautical charts, and while in the traffic pattern, shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(b) Each person operating an aircraft within the Bryant segment should self-announce intentions on the Bryant Airport CTAF.

(a) Each person operating an airplane in the Seward Highway segment shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL unless maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

(b) Each person operating an aircraft at or below 1,200 feet MSL that will transition to or from the Lake Hood or Merrill segment shall contact the appropriate ATCT prior to entering the Seward Highway segment. All other persons operating an airplane at or below 1,200 feet MSL in this segment shall contact Anchorage Approach Control.

(c) At all times, each person operating an aircraft above 1,200 MSL shall contact Anchorage Approach Control prior to entering the Seward Highway segment.

Each person operating an aircraft to or from Lake Campbell or Sixmile Lake Airport shall conform to the flow of traffic for the Lake operations that are depicted on the appropriate aeronautical charts.

(a) Flight restrictions are in effect below 3,500 feet MSL in the airspace above Niagara Falls, New York, west of a line from latitude 43°06′33″ N., longitude 79°03′30″ W. (the Whirlpool Rapids Bridge) to latitude 43°04′47″ N., longitude 79°02′44″ W. (the Niagara River Inlet) to latitude 43°04′29″ N., longitude 79°03′30″ W. (the International Control Dam) to the United States/Canadian Border and thence along the border to the point of origin.

(b) No flight is authorized below 3,500 feet MSL in the area described in paragraph (a) of this section, except for aircraft operations conducted directly to or from an airport/heliport within the area, aircraft operating on an ATC-approved IFR flight plan, aircraft operating the Scenic Falls Route pursuant to approval of Transport Canada, aircraft carrying law enforcement officials, or aircraft carrying properly accredited news representatives for which a flight plan has been filed with Buffalo NY (BUF) Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS).

(c) Check with Transport Canada for flight restrictions in Canadian airspace. Commercial air tour operations approved by Transport Canada will be conducting a north/south orbit of the Niagara Falls area below 3,500 feet MSL over the Niagara River.

(d) The minimum altitude for VFR flight over the Scenic Falls area is 3,500 feet MSL.

(e) Comply with the following procedures when conducting flight over the area described in paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Fly a clockwise pattern;

(2) Do not proceed north of the Rainbow Bridge;

(3) Prior to joining the pattern, broadcast flight intentions on frequency 122.05 Mhz, giving altitude and position, and monitor the frequency while in the pattern;

(4) Use the Niagara Falls airport altimeter setting. Contact Niagara Falls Airport Traffic Control Tower to obtain the current altimeter setting, to facilitate the exchange of traffic advisories/restrictions, and to reduce the risk of midair collisions between aircraft operating in the vicinity of the Falls. If the Control Tower is closed, use the appropriate Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) Frequency;

(5) Do not exceed 130 knots;

(6) Anticipate heavy congestion of VFR traffic at or above 3,500 feet MSL; and

(7) Use caution to avoid high-speed civil and military aircraft transiting the area to or from Niagara Falls Airport.

(f) These procedures do not relieve pilots from the requirements of § 91.113 of this chapter to see and avoid other aircraft.

(g) Flight following, to and from the area, is available through Buffalo Approach.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft operating in the Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

The Valparaiso, Florida Terminal Area is designated as follows:

(a) North-South Corridor. The North-South Corridor includes the airspace extending upward from the surface up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at:

Latitude 30°42′51″ N., Longitude 86°38′02″ W.; to

Latitude 30°43′18″ N., Longitude 86°27′37″ W.; to

Latitude 30°37′01″ N., Longitude 86°27′37″ W.; to

Latitude 30°37′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′30″ W.; to

Latitude 30°33′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′30″ W.; to

Latitude 30°33′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′00″ W.; to

Latitude 30°25′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′00″ W.; to

Latitude 30°25′01″ N., Longitude 86°38′12″ W.; to

Latitude 30°29′02″ N., Longitude 86°38′02″ W.; to point of beginning.

(b) East-West Corridor. The East-West Corridor is divided into three sections to accommodate the different altitudes as portions of the corridor underlie restricted areas R-2915C, R-2919B, and R-2914B.

(1) The west section includes that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°22′47″ N, Longitude 86°51′30″ W: then along the shoreline to Latitude 30°23′46″ N, Longitude 86°38′15″ W; to Latitude 30°20′47″ N, Longitude-86°38′51″ W"; then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 30°19′45″ N, Longitude 86°51′30″ W"; to the beginning.

(2) The center section would include that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°38′12″ W; to Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°25′00″ W; to Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°22′26″ W; to Latitude 30°19′41″ N, Longitude 86°23′46″ W; then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 30°20′47″ N, Longitude 86°38′51″ W; to Latitude 30°23′46″ N, Longitude 86°38′15″ W; to the beginning.

(3) The east section includes that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°22′26″ W; to Latitude 30°22′01″ N, Longitude 86°08′00″ W; to Latitude 30°19′16″ N, Longitude 85°56′00″ W; to Latitude 30°11′08″ N, Longitude 85°56′00″ W; then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 30°19′41″ N, Longitude 86°23′46″ W; to the beginning.

[Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46154, Sept. 6, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 93-82, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003; Docket FAA-2024-1669, Amdt.93-104, 89 FR 52362, June 24, 2024; Amdt. 93-104A, 89 FR 56821, July 11, 2024]

(a) North-South Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC (including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an aircraft in flight within the North-South Corridor designated in § 93.81 (b)(1) unless-

(1) Before operating within the corridor, that person obtains a clearance from the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility; and

(2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while within the corridor.

(b) East-West Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC (including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an aircraft in flight within the East-West Corridor designated in § 93.81 (b)(2) unless-

(1) Before operating within the corridor, that person establishes two-way radio communications with Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility and receives an ATC advisory concerning operations being conducted therein; and

(2) That person maintains two-way radio communications with the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while within the corridor.

[Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46155, Sept. 6, 1994]

This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the Los Angeles, California Special Flight Rules Area.

The Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area is designated as that part of Area A of the Los Angeles Class B airspace area at 3,500 feet above mean sea level (MSL) and at 4,500 feet MSL, beginning at Ballona Creek/Pacific Ocean (lat. 33°57′42″ N, long. 118°27′23″ W), then eastbound along Manchester Blvd. to the intersection of Manchester/405 Freeway (lat. 33°57′42″ N, long. 118°22′10″ W), then southbound along the 405 Freeway to the intersection of the 405 Freeway/Imperial Highway (lat. 33°55′51″ N, long. 118°22′06″ W), then westbound along Imperial Highway to the intersection of Imperial Highway/Pacific Ocean (lat. 33°55′51″ N, long. 118°26′05″ W), then northbound along the shoreline to the point of beginning.

Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in § 93.93 unless the operation is conducted in accordance with the following procedures:

(a) The flight must be conducted under VFR and only when operation may be conducted in compliance with § 91.155 (a) of this chapter.

(b) The aircraft must be equipped as specified in § 91.215 (b) of this chapter replying on code 1201 prior to entering and while operating in this area.

(c) The pilot shall have a current Los Angeles Terminal Area Chart in the aircraft.

(d) The pilot shall operate on the Santa Monica very high frequency omni-directional radio range (VOR) 132° radial.

(e) Aircraft navigating in a southeasterly direction shall be in level flight at 3,500 feet MSL.

(f) Aircraft navigating in a northwesterly direction shall be in level flight at 4,500 feet MSL.

(g) Indicated airspeed shall not exceed 140 knots.

(h) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights shall be on. Use of landing lights is recommended.

(i) Turbojet aircraft are prohibited from VFR operations in this area.

Notwithstanding the provisions of § 91.131 (a) of this chapter, an air traffic control authorization is not required in the Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area for operations in compliance with § 93.95. All other provisions of § 91.131 of this chapter apply to operations in the Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area.

This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft operating at the Lorain County Regional Airport, Lorain County, Ohio.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

Each person piloting an airplane landing at the Lorain County Regional Airport shall enter the traffic pattern north of the airport and shall execute a right traffic pattern for a landing to the southwest or a left traffic pattern for a landing to the northeast. Each person taking off from the airport shall execute a departure turn to the north as soon as practicable after takeoff.

[Docket 8669, 33 FR 11749, Aug. 20, 1968]

This subpart designates high density traffic airports and prescribes air traffic rules for operating aircraft, other than helicopters, to or from those airports.

[Docket 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-27, 38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973]

(a) Each of the following airports is designated as a high density traffic airport and, except as provided in § 93.129 and paragraph (b) of this section, or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, is limited to the hourly number of allocated IFR operations (takeoffs and landings) that may be reserved for the specified classes of users for that airport:

IFR Operations per Hour

Airport


John F. Kennedy


(b) The following exceptions apply to the allocations of reservations prescribed in paragraph (a) Of this section.

(1) The allocations of reservations among the several classes of users do not apply from 12 midnight to 6 a.m. local time, but the total hourly limitation remains applicable.

(2) [Reserved]

(3) The allocation of 37 IFR reservations per hour for air carriers except commuters at Washington National Airport does not include charter flights, or other nonscheduled flights of scheduled or supplemental air carriers. These flights may be conducted without regard to the limitation of 37 IFR reservations per hour.

(4) The allocation of IFR reservations for air carriers except commuters at LaGuardia, Newark, O'Hare, and Washington National Airports does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. The allocation of IFR reservations for scheduled commuters at Washington National Airport does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. These flights may be conducted without regard to the limitation upon the hourly IFR reservations at those airports.

(5) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier operations (except commuters) is available for a scheduled commuter operation.

(6) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier operations (except commuters) or scheduled commuter operations is available for other operations.

(c) For purposes of this subpart-

(1) The number of operations allocated to air carriers except commuters, as used in paragraph (a) of this section refers to the number of operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 75 or more or with turbojet powered aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 56 or more, or, if used for cargo service in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum payload capacity of 18,000 pounds or more.

(2) The number of operations allocated to scheduled commuters, as used in paragraph (a) of this section, refers to the number of operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of less than 75 or by turbojet aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of less than 56, or if used for cargo service in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum payload capacity of less than 18,000 pounds. For purposes of aircraft operations at Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport, the term "commuters" means aircraft operations using aircraft having a certificated maximum seating capacity of 76 or less.

(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c) (2) of this section, a limited number of operations allocated for "scheduled commuters" under paragraph (a) of this section may be conducted with aircraft described in § 93.221 (e) of this part pursuant to the requirements of § 93.221 (e).

[Docket 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-37, 45 FR 62408, Sept. 18, 1980; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58048, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 54 FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-59, 54 FR 39843, Sept. 28, 1989; Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41207, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53564, Oct. 1, 1999; Amdt. 93-84, 70 FR 29063, May 19, 2005]

Except between 12 Midnight and 6 a.m. local time, no person may operate an aircraft to or from an airport designated as a high density traffic airport unless he has received, for that operation, an arrival or departure reservation from ATC.

[Docket 9974, 37 FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972]

(a) IFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off or land the aircraft under IFR at a designated high density traffic airport without regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the operations allocated for the airport for which the reservations is requested.

(b) VFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off and land the aircraft under VFR at a designated high density traffic airport without regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the operations allocated for the airport for which the reservation is requested and the ceiling reported at the airport is at least 1,000 feet and the ground visibility reported at the airport is at least 3 miles.

(c) For the purpose of this section a scheduled operation to or from the high density airport is any operation regularly conducted by an air carrier or commuter between a high density airport and another point regularly served by that operator unless the service is conducted pursuant to irregular charter or hiring of aircraft or is a nonpassenger flight.

(d) An aircraft operator must obtain an IFR reservation in accordance with procedures established by the Administrator. For IFR flights to or from a high density airport, reservations for takeoff and arrival shall be obtained prior to takeoff.

[Docket 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-25, 37 FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58049, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984]

The Administrator may suspend the effectiveness of any allocation prescribed in § 93.123 and the reservation requirements prescribed in § 93.125 if he finds such action to be consistent with the efficient use of the airspace. Such suspension may be terminated whenever the Administrator determines that such action is necessary for the efficient use of the airspace.

[Docket 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-21, 35 FR 16636, Oct. 27, 1970; Amdt. 93-27, 38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973]

Except as provided in § 93.130, the provisions of §§ 93.123 and 93.125 do not apply to-

(a) The Newark Airport, Newark, NJ;

(b) The Kennedy International Airport, New York, NY, except during the hours from 3 p.m. through 7:59 p.m., local time; and

(c) O'Hare International Airport from 9:15 p.m. to 6:44 a.m., local time.

[Docket 24471, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984]

This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Ketchikan International Airport or Ketchikan Harbor, Alaska.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

Within that airspace below 3,000 feet MSL within the lateral boundary of the surface area of the Ketchikan Class E airspace regardless of whether that airspace is in effect.

[Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

(a) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is in operation, no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in § 93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, unless that person has established two-way radio communications with the Ketchikan Flight Service Station for the purpose of receiving traffic advisories and continues to monitor the advisory frequency at all times while operating within the specified airspace.

(b) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is not in operation, no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in § 93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, unless that person continuously monitors and communicates, as appropriate, on the designated common traffic advisory frequency as follows:

(1) For inbound flights. Announces position and intentions when no less than 10 miles from Ketchikan International Airport, and monitors the designated frequency until clear of the movement area on the airport or Ketchikan Harbor.

(2) For departing flights. Announces position and intentions prior to taxiing onto the active runway on the airport or onto the movement area of Ketchikan Harbor and monitors the designated frequency until outside the airspace described in § 93.151 and announces position and intentions upon departing that airspace.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in § 93.151, and land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums.

[Docket 26653, 56 FR 48094, Sept. 23, 1991]

(a) When an advisory is received from the Ketchikan Flight Service Station stating that an aircraft is on final approach to the Ketchikan International Airport, no person may taxi onto the runway of that airport until the approaching aircraft has landed and has cleared the runway.

(b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a large airplane or a turbine engine powered airplane shall-

(1) When approaching to land at the Ketchikan International Airport, maintain an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until within three miles of the airport; and

(2) After takeoff from the Ketchikan International Airport, maintain runway heading until reaching an altitude of 900 feet MSL.

This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Pearson Field Airport in Vancouver, Washington.

The Pearson Field Airport Special Flight Rules Area is designated as that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 1,100 feet MSL in an area bounded by a line beginning at the point where the 019° bearing from Pearson Field intersects the 5-mile arc from Portland International Airport extending southeast to a point 1 1/2 miles east of Pearson Field on the extended centerline of Runway 8/26, thence south to the north shore of the Columbia River, thence west via the north shore of the Columbia River to the 5-mile arc from Portland International Airport, thence clockwise via the 5-mile arc to point of beginning.

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace described in § 93.162, or taxi onto the runway at Pearson Field, unless-

(1) That person establishes two-way radio communications with Pearson Advisory on the common traffic advisory frequency for the purpose of receiving air traffic advisories and continues to monitor the frequency at all times while operating within the specified airspace.

(2) That person has obtained the Pearson Field weather prior to establishing two-way communications with Pearson Advisory.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a person may operate an aircraft within the airspace described in § 93.162, and land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums. If two-way radio communications failure occurs while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185.

(c) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, persons operating an aircraft within the airspace described in § 93.162 must-

(1) When operating over the runway or extended runway centerline of Pearson Field Runway 8/26 maintain an altitude at or below 700 feet above mean sea level.

(2) Remain outside Portland Class C Airspace.

(3) Make a right traffic pattern when operating to/from Pearson Field Runway 26.

This subpart prescribes a Special Air Traffic Rule for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of Luke Air Force Base, AZ.

The Luke Air Force Base, Arizona Terminal Area is designated during official daylight hours Monday through Friday while Luke pilot flight training is underway, as broadcast on the local Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS), and other times by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM), as follows:

(a) East Sector:

(1) South section includes airspace extending from 3,000 feet MSL to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°23′56″ N; Long. 112°28′37″ W; to Lat. 33°22′32″ N; Long. 112°37′14″ W; to Lat. 33°25′39″ N; Long. 112°37′29″ W; to Lat. 33°31′55″ N; Long. 112°30′32″ W; to Lat. 33°28′00″ N; Long. 112°28′41″ W; to point of beginning.

(2) South section lower includes airspace extending from 2,100 feet MSL to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace, excluding the Luke Class D airspace area bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°28′00″ N; Long. 112°28′41″ W; to Lat. 33°23′56″ N; Long. 112°28′37″ W; to Lat. 33°27′53″ N; Long. 112°24′12″ W; to point of beginning.

(3) Center section includes airspace extending from surface to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace, excluding the Luke Class D airspace area bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°42′22″ N; Long. 112°19′16″ W; to Lat. 33°38′40″ N; Long. 112°14′03″ W; to Lat. 33°27′53″ N; Long. 112°24′12″ W; to Lat. 33°28′00″ N; Long. 112°28′41″ W; to Lat. 33°31′55″ N; Long. 112°30′32″ W; to point of beginning.

(4) The north section includes that airspace extending upward from 3,000 feet MSL to 4,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°42′22″ N; Long. 112°19′16″ W; to Lat. 33°46′58″ N; Long. 112°16′41″ W; to Lat. 33°44′48″ N; Long. 112°10′59″ W; to Lat. 33°38′40″ N; Long. 112°14′03″ W; to point of beginning.

(b) West Sector:

(1) The north section includes that airspace extending upward from 3,000 feet MSL to 6,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°51′52″ N; Long. 112°37′54″ W; to Lat. 33°49′34″ N; Long. 112°23′34″ W; to Lat. 33°46′58″ N; Long. 112°16′41″ W; to Lat. 33°42′22″ N; Long. 112°19′16″ W; to Lat. 33°39′27″ N; Long. 112°22′27″ W; to point of beginning.

(2) The south section includes that airspace extending upward from the surface to 6,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°39′27″ N; Long. 112°22′27″ W; to Lat. 33°38′06″ N; Long. 112°23′51″ W; to Lat. 33°38′07″ N; Long. 112°28′50″ W; to Lat. 33°39′34″ N; Long. 112°31′39″ W; to Lat. 33°39′32″ N; Long. 112°37′36″ W; to Lat. 33°51′52″ N; Long. 112°37′54″ W; to point of beginning.

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by Air Traffic Control (ATC), no person may operate an aircraft in flight within the Luke Terminal Area designated in § 93.176 unless-

(1) Before operating within the Luke Terminal area, that person establishes radio contact with the Luke RAPCON; and

(2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Luke RAPCON or an appropriate ATC facility while within the designated area.

(b) Requests for deviation from the provisions of this section apply only to aircraft not equipped with an operational radio. The request must be submitted at least 24 hours before the proposed operation to Luke RAPCON.

(a) This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the allocation and withdrawal of IFR operational authority (takeoffs and landings) to individual air carriers and commuter operators at the High Density Traffic Airports identified in subpart K of this part except for Newark Airport.

(b) This subpart also prescribes rules concerning the transfer of allocated IFR operational authority and the use of that authority once allocated.

(a) For purposes of this subpart-

(1) New entrant carrier means a commuter operator or air carrier which does not hold a slot at a particular airport and has never sold or given up a slot at that airport after December 16, 1985.

(2) Slot means the operational authority to conduct one IFR landing or takeoff operation each day during a specific hour or 30 minute period at one of the High Density Traffic Airports, as specified in subpart K of this part.

(3) Summer season means the period of time from the first Sunday in April until the last Sunday in October.

(4) Winter season means the period of time from the last Sunday in October until the first Sunday in April.

(5) Limited incumbent carrier means an air carrier or commuter operator that holds or operates fewer than 12 air carrier or commuter slots, in any combination, at a particular airport, not including international slots, Essential Air Service Program slots, or slots between the hours of 2200 and 0659 at Washington National Airport or LaGuardia Airport. However, for the purposes of this paragraph (a) (5), the carrier is considered to hold the number of slots at that airport that the carrier has, since December 16, 1985:

(i) Returned to the FAA;

(ii) Had recalled by the FAA under § 93.227 (a); or

(iii) Transferred to another party other than by trade for one or more slots at the same airport.

(b) The definitions specified in subpart K of this part also apply to this subpart.

(c) For purposes of this subpart, if an air carrier, commuter operator, or other person has more than a 50-percent ownership or control of one or more other air carriers, commuter operators, or other persons, they shall be considered to be a single air carrier, commuter operator, or person. In addition, if a single company has more than a 50-percent ownership or control of two or more air carriers and/or commuter operators or any combination thereof, those air carriers and/or commuter operators shall be considered to be a single operator. A single operator may be considered to be both an air carrier and commuter operator for purposes of this subpart.

[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 54 FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992]

(a) Each air carrier and commuter operator holding a permanent slot on December 16, 1985, as evidenced by the records of the air carrier and commuter operator scheduling committees, shall be allocated those slots subject to withdrawal under the provisions of this subpart. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for initial allocation determinations.

(b) Any permanent slot whose use on December 16, 1985 is divided among different operators, by day of the week, or otherwise, as evidenced by records of the scheduling committees, shall be allocated in conformity with those records. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for these determinations.

(c) A carrier may permanently designate a slot it holds at Kennedy International Airport as a seasonal slot, to be held by the carrier only during the corresponding season in future years, if it notifies the FAA (at the address specified in § 93.225 (e)), in writing, the preceding winter seasons or by October 15 of the preceding year for summer seasons.

(d) Within 30 days after December 16, 1985, each U.S. air carrier and commuter operator must notify the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1), in writing, of those slots used for operations described in § 93.217 (a)(1) on December 16, 1985.

(e) Any slot not held by an operator on December 16, 1985 shall be allocated in accordance with the provisions of §§ 93.217, 93.219 or 93.225 of this subpart.

[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986]

(a) Any air carrier of commuter operator having the authority to conduct international operations shall be provided slots for those operations, excluding transborder service solely between HDR airports and Canada, subject to the following conditions and the other provisions of this section:

(1) The slot may be used only for a flight segment in which either the takeoff or landing is at a foreign point or, for foreign operators, the flight segment is a continuation of a flight that begins or ends at a foreign point. Slots may be obtained and used under this section only for operations at Kennedy and O'Hare airports unless otherwise required by bilateral agreement and only for scheduled service unless the requesting carrier qualifies for the slot on the basis of historic seasonal operations, under § 93.217 (a)(5).

(2) Slots used for an operation described in paragraph (a) (1) of this section may not be bought, sold, leased, or otherwise transferred, except that such a slot may be traded to another slot-holder on a one-for-one basis for a slot at the same airport in a different hour or half-hour period if the trade is for the purpose of conducting such an operation in a different hour or half-hour period.

(3) Slots used for operations described in paragraph (a) (1) of this section must be returned to the FAA if the slot will not be used for such operations for more than a 2-week period.

(4) Each air carrier or commuter operator having a slot that is used for operations described in paragraph (a) (1) of this section but is not used every day of the week shall notify the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) in writing of those days on which the slots will not be used.

(5) Except as provided in paragraph (a) (10) of this section, at Kennedy and O'Hare Airports, a slot shall be allocated, upon request, for seasonal international operations, including charter operations, if the Chief Counsel of the FAA determines that the slot had been permanently allocated to and used by the requesting carrier in the same hour and for the same time period during the corresponding season of the preceding year. Requests for such slots must be submitted to the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1), by the deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. For operations during the 1986 summer season, requests under this paragraph must have been submitted to the FAA on or before February 1, 1986. Each carrier requesting a slot under this paragraph must submit its entire international schedule at the relevant airport for the particular season, noting which requests are in addition to or changes from the previous year.

(6) Except as provided in paragraph (a) (10) of this section, additional slots shall be allocated at O'Hare Airport for international scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond those slots allocated under §§ 93.215 and 93.217 (a)(5) if a request is submitted to the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) and filed by the deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. These slots will be allocated at the time requested unless a slot is available within one hour of the requested time, in which case the unallocated slots will be used to satisfy the request.

(7) If required by bilateral agreement, additional slots shall be allocated at LaGuardia Airport for international scheduled passenger operations within the hour requested.

(8) To the extent vacant slots are available, additional slots during the high density hours shall be allocated at Kennedy Airport for new international scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond those operations for which slots have been allocated under §§ 93.215 and 93.217 (a)(5)), if a request is submitted to the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) by the deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. In addition, slots may be withdrawn from domestic operations for operations at Kennedy Airport under this paragraph if required by international obligations.

(9) In determining the hour in which a slot request under §§ 93.217 (a)(6) and 93.217 (a)(8) will be granted, the following will be taken into consideration, among other things:

(i) The availability of vacant slot times;

(ii) International obligations;

(iii) Airport terminal capacity, including facilities and personnel of the U.S. Customs Service and the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization Service;

(iv) The extent and regularity of intended use of a slot; and

(v) Schedule constraints of carriers requesting slots.

(10) At O'Hare Airport, a slot will not be allocated under this section to a carrier holding or operating 100 or more permanent slots on the previous May 15 for a winter season or October 15 for a summer season unless:

(i) Allocation of the slot does not result in a total allocation to that carrier under this section that exceeds the number of slots allocated to and scheduled by that carrier under this section on February 23, 1990, and as reduced by the number of slots reclassified under § 93.218, and does not exceed by more than 2 the number of slots allocated to and scheduled by that carrier during any half hour of that day, or

(ii) Notwithstanding the number of slots allocated under paragraph (a) (10)(i) of this section, a slot is available for allocation without withdrawal of a permanent slot from any carrier.

(b) If a slot allocated under § 93.215 was scheduled for an operation described in paragraph (a) (1) of this section on December 16, 1985, its use shall be subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a) (1) through (a) (4) of this section. The requirements also apply to slots used for international operations at LaGuardia Airport.

(c) If a slot is offered to a carrier in other than the hour requested, the carrier shall have 14 days after the date of the offer to accept the newly offered slot. Acceptance must be in writing and sent to the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) and must repeat the certified statements required by paragraph (e) of this section.

(d) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation reserves the right not to apply the provisions of this section, concerning the allocation of slots, to any foreign air carrier or commuter operator of a country that provides slots to U.S. air carriers and commuter operators on a basis more restrictive than provided by this subpart. Decisions not to apply the provisions of this section will be made by the Office of the Secretary of Transportation.

(e) Each request for slots under this section shall state the airport, days of the week and time of the day of the desired slots and the period of time the slots are to be used. Each request shall identify whether the slot is requested under paragraph (a) (5), (6), or (8) and identify any changes from the previous year if requested under both paragraphs. The request must be accompanied by a certified statement signed by an officer of the operator indicating that the operator has or has contracted for aircraft capable of being utilized in using the slots requested and that the operator has bona fide plans to use the requested slots for operations described in paragraph (a).

[Docket 24105, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 93-61, 55 FR 53243, Dec. 27, 1990; 56 FR 1059, Jan. 10, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, international slots identified by U.S. carriers for international operations in December 1985 and the equivalent number of international slots held as of February 24, 1998, will be domestic slots. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for these determinations.

(b) Canadian carriers shall have a guaranteed base level of slots of 42 slots at LaGuardia, 36 slots at O'Hare for the Sumner season, and 32 slots at O'Hare in the Winter season.

(c) Any modification to the slot base by the Government of Canada or the Canadian carriers that results in a decrease of the guaranteed base in paragraph (b) of this section shall permanently modify the base number of slots.

[Docket FAA-1999-4971, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]

Whenever the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines that slots are needed for operations to or from a High Density Traffic Airport under the Department of Transportation's Essential Air Service (EAS) Program, those slots shall be provided to the designated air carrier or commuter operator subject to the following limitations:

(a) Slots obtained under this section may not be bought, sold, leased or otherwise transferred, except that such slots may be traded for other slots on a one-for-one basis at the same airport.

(b) Any slot obtained under this section must be returned to the FAA if it will not be used for EAS purposes for more than a 2-week period. A slot returned under this paragraph may be reallocated to the operator which returned it upon request to the FAA office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) if that slot has not been reallocated to an operator to provide substitute essential air service.

(c) Slots shall be allocated for EAS purposes in a time period within 90 minutes of the time period requested.

(d) The Department will not honor requests for slots for EAS purposes to a point if the requesting carrier has previously traded away or sold slots it had used or obtained for use in providing essential air service to that point.

(e) Slots obtained under Civil Aeronautics Board Order No. 84-11-40 shall be considered to have been obtained under this section.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, effective April 1, 1986, slots may be bought, sold or leased for any consideration and any time period and they may be traded in any combination for slots at the same airport or any other high density traffic airport. Transfers, including leases, shall comply with the following conditions:

(1) Requests for confirmation must be submitted in writing to Slot Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591, in a format to be prescribed by the Administrator. Requests will provide the names of the transferor and recipient; business address and telephone number of the persons representing the transferor and recipient; whether the slot is to be used for an arrival or departure; the date the slot was acquired by the transferor; the section of this subpart under which the slot was allocated to the transferor; whether the slot has been used by the transferor for international or essential air service operations; and whether the slot will be used by the recipient for international or essential air service operations. After withdrawal priorities have been established under § 93.223 of this part, the requests must include the slot designations of the transferred slots as described in § 93.223 (b)(5).

(2) The slot transferred must come from the transferor's then-current FAA-approved base.

(3) Written evidence of each transferor's consent to the transfer must be provided to the FAA.

(4) The recipient of a transferred slot may not use the slot until written confirmation has been received from the FAA.

(5) (i) Until a slot obtained by a new entrant or limited incumbent carrier in a lottery held under § 93.225 after June 1, 1991, has been used by the carrier that obtained it for a continuous 24-month period after the lottery in accordance with § 93.227 (a), that slot may be transferred only by trade for one or more slots at the same airport or to other new entrant or limited incumbent carriers under § 93.221 (a)(5) (iii). This transfer restriction shall apply to the same extent to any slot or slots acquired by trading the slot obtained in a lottery. To remove the transfer restriction, documentation of 24 months' continuous use must be submitted to the FAA Office of the Chief Counsel.

(ii) Failure to use a slot acquired by trading a slot obtained in a lottery for a continuous 24-month period after the lottery, shall void all trades involving the lottery slot, which shall be returned to the FAA. All use of the lottery slot shall be counted toward fulfilling the minimum use requirements under § 93.227 (a) applicable to the slot or slots for which the lottery slot was traded, including subsequent trades.

(iii) Slots obtained by new entrant or limited incumbent carriers in a lottery may be sold, leased, or otherwise transferred to another entrant or limited incumbent carrier after a minimum of 60 days of use by the obtaining carrier. The transfer restrictions of § 93.221 (a)(5) (i) shall continue to apply to the slot until documentation of 24 months' continuous use has been submitted and the transfer restriction removed.

(6) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation must determine that the transfer will not be injurious to the essential air service program.

(b) A record of each slot transfer shall be kept on file by the office specified in paragraph (a) (1) of this section and will be made available to the public upon request.

(c) Any person may buy or sell slots and any air carrier or commuter may use them. Notwithstanding § 93.123, air carrier slots may be used with aircraft of the kind described in § 93.123 (c) (1) or (c) (2) but commuter slots may only be used with aircraft of the kind described in § 93.0123 (c)(2).

(d) Air carriers and commuter operators considered to be a single operator under the provisions of § 93.213 (c) of this subpart but operating under separate names shall report transfers of slots between them.

(e) Notwithstanding § 93.123 (c)(2) of this part, a commuter slot at O'Hare International Airport may be used with an aircraft described in § 93.123 (c)(1) of this part on the following conditions:

(1) Air carrier aircraft that may be operated under this paragraph are limited to aircraft:

(i) Having an actual seating configuration of 110 or fewer passengers; and

(ii) Having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of less than 126,000 pounds.

(2) No more than 50 percent of the total number of commuter slots held by a slot holder at O'Hare International Airport may be used with aircraft described in paragraph (e) (1) of this section.

(3) An air carrier or commuter operator planning to operate an aircraft described in paragraph (e) (1) of this section in a commuter slot shall notify ATC at least 75 days in advance of the planned start date of such operation. The notice shall include the slot number, proposed time of operation, aircraft type, aircraft series, actual aircraft seating configuration, and planned start date. ATC will approve or disapprove the proposed operation no later than 45 days prior to the planned start date. If an operator does not initiate operation of a commuter slot under this section within 30 days of the planned start date first submitted to the FAA, the ATC approval for that operation will expire. That operator may file a new or revised notice for the same half-hour slot time.

(4) An operation may not be conducted under paragraph (e) (1) of this section unless a gate is available for that operation without planned waiting time.

(5) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), notice to ATC shall be submitted in writing to: Director, Air Traffic System Management, ATM-1, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.

[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41208, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-68, 58 FR 39616, July 23, 1993]

(a) Slots do not represent a property right but represent an operating privilege subject to absolute FAA control. Slots may be withdrawn at any time to fulfill the Department's operational needs, such as providing slots for international or essential air service operations or eliminating slots. Before withdrawing any slots under this section to provide them for international operations, essential air services or other operational needs, those slots returned under § 93.224 of this part and those recalled by the agency under § 93.227 will be allocated.

(b) Separate slot pools shall be established for air carriers and commuter operators at each airport. The FAA shall assign, by random lottery, withdrawal priority numbers for the recall priority of slots at each airport. Each additional permanent slot, if any, will be assigned the next higher number for air carrier or commuter slots, as appropriate, at each airport. Each slot shall be assigned a designation consisting of the applicable withdrawal priority number; the airport code; a code indicating whether the slot is an air carrier or commuter operator slot; and the time period of the slot. The designation shall also indicate, as appropriate, if the slot is daily or for certain days of the week only; is limited to arrivals or departures; is allocated for international operations or for EAS purposes; and, at Kennedy International Airport, is a summer or winter slot.

(c) Whenever slots must be withdrawn, they will be withdrawn in accordance with the priority list established under paragraph (b) of this section, except:

(1) Slots obtained in a lottery held pursuant to § 93.225 of this part shall be subject to withdrawal pursuant to paragraph (i) of that section, and

(2) Slots necessary for international and essential air service operations shall be exempt from withdrawal for use for other international or essential air service operations.

(3) Except as provided in § 93.227 (a), the FAA shall not withdraw slots held at an airport by an air carrier or commuter operator holding and operating 12 or fewer slots at that airport (excluding slots used for operations described in § 93.212 (a)(1)), if withdrawal would reduce the number of slots held below the number of slots operated.

(4) No slot comprising the guaranteed base of slots, as defined in section 93.318 (b), shall be withdrawn for use for international operations or for new entrants.

(d) The following withdrawal priority rule shall be used to permit application of the one-for-one trade provisions for international and essential air service slots and the slot withdrawal provisions where the slots are needed for other than international or essential air service operations. If an operator has more than one slot in a specific time period in which it also has a slot being used for international or essential air service operations, the international and essential air service slots will be considered to be those with the lowest withdrawal priority.

(e) The operator(s) using each slot to be withdrawn shall be notified by the FAA of the withdrawal and shall cease operations using that slot on the date indicated in the notice. Generally, the FAA will provide at least 30 days after notification for the operator to cease operations unless exigencies require a shorter time period.

(f) For 24 months following a lottery held after June 1, 1991, a slot acquired in that lottery shall be withdrawn by the FAA upon the sale, merger, or acquisition of more than 50 percent ownership or control of the carrier using that slot or one acquired by trade of that slot, if the resulting total of slots held or operated at the airport by the surviving entity would exceed 12 slots.

[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]

(a) Whenever a slot is required to be returned under this subpart, the holder must notify the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) in writing of the date after which the slot will not be used.

(b) Slots may be voluntarily returned for use by other operators by notifying the office specified in § 93.221 (a)(1) in writing.

(a) Whenever the FAA determines that sufficient slots have become available for distribution for purposes other than international or essential air service operations, but generally not more than twice a year, they shall be allocated in accordance with the provisions of this section.

(b) A random lottery shall be held to determine the order of slot selection.

(c) Slot allocation lotteries shall be held on an airport-by-airport basis with separate lotteries for air carrier and commuter operator slots. The slots to be allocated in each lottery will be each unallocated slot not necessary for international or Essential Air Service Program operations, including any slot created by an increase in the operating limits set forth in § 93.123 (a).

(d) The FAA shall publish a notice in the Federal Register announcing any lottery dates. The notice may include special procedures to be in effect for the lotteries.

(e) Participation in a lottery is open to each U.S. air carrier or commuter operator operating at the airport and providing scheduled passenger service at the airport, as well as where provided for by bilateral agreement. Any U.S. carrier, or foreign air carrier where provided for by bilateral agreement, that is not operating scheduled service at the airport and has not failed to operate slots obtained in the previous lottery, or slots traded for those obtained by lottery, but wishes to initiate scheduled passenger service at the airport, shall be included in the lottery if that operator notifies, in writing, the Slot Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591. The notification must be received 15 days prior to the lottery date and state whether there is any common ownership or control of, by, or with any other air carrier or commuter operator as defined in § 93.213 (c). New entrant and limited incumbent carriers will be permitted to complete their selections before participation by other incumbent carriers is initiated.

(f) At the lottery, each operator must make its selection within 5 minutes after being called or it shall lose its turn. If capacity still remains after each operator has had an opportunity to select slots, the allocation sequence will be repeated in the same order. An operator may select any two slots available at the airport during each sequence, except that new entrant carriers may select four slots, if available, in the first sequence.

(g) To select slots during a slot lottery session, a carrier must have appropriate economic authority for scheduled passenger service under Title IV of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. App. 1371 et seq.), and must hold FAA operating authority under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter as appropriate for the slots the operator seeks to select.

(h) During the first selection sequence, 25 percent of the slots available but no less than two slots shall be reserved for selection by new entrant carriers. If new entrant carriers do not select all of the slots set aside for new entrant carriers, limited incumbent carriers may select the remaining slots. If every participating new entrant carrier and limited incumbent carrier has ceased selection of available slots or has obtained 12 slots at that airport, other incumbent carriers may participate in selecting the remaining slots; however, slots selected by non-limited incumbent carriers will be allocated only until the date of the next lottery.

(i) Slots obtained under this section shall retain their withdrawal priority as established under § 93.223. If the slot is newly created, a withdrawal priority shall be assigned. That priority number shall be higher than any other slot assigned a withdrawal number previously.

[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 47993, Oct. 21, 1992; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]

(a) If there are available slots in the following time periods and there are no pending requests for international or EAS operations at these times, FAA will allocate slots upon request on a first-come, first-served basis, as set forth in this section:

(1) Any period for which a slot is available less than 5 days per week.

(2) Any time period for which a slot is available for less than a full season.

(3) For LaGuardia and Washington National Airports:

(i) 6:00 a.m.-6:59 a.m.

(ii) 10:00 p.m.-midnight.

(b) Slots will be allocated only to operators with the economic and operating authority and aircraft required to use the slots.

(c) Requests for allocations under this section shall be submitted in writing to the address listed in § 93.221 (a)(1) and shall identify the request as made under this section.

(d) The FAA may deny requests made under this section after a determination that all remaining slots in a particular category should be distributed by lottery.

(e) Slots may be allocated on a seasonal or temporary basis under this provision.

[Docket 24105, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986]

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (g), and (l) of this section, any slot not utilized 80 percent of the time over a 2-month period shall be recalled by the FAA.

(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots obtained under § 93.225 of this part during:

(1) The first 90 days after they are allocated to a new entrant carrier; or

(2) The first 60 days after they are allocated to a limited incumbent or other incumbent carrier.

(c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots of an operator forced by a strike to cease operations using those slots.

(d) In the case of a carrier that files for protection under the Federal bankruptcy laws and has not received a Notice of Withdrawal from the FAA for the subject slot or slots, paragraph (a) of this section does not apply:

(1) During a period after the initial petition in bankruptcy, to any slot held or operated by that carrier, for:

(i) 60 days after the carrier files the initial petition in bankruptcy; and

(ii) 30 days after the carrier, in anticipation of transferring slots, submits information to a Federal government agency in connection with a statutory antitrust, economic impact, or similar review of the transfer, provided that the information is submitted more than 30 days after filing the initial petition in bankruptcy, and provided further that any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this § 93.227; and

(2) During a period after a carrier ceases operations at an airport, to any slot held or operated by that carrier at that airport, for:

(i) 30 days after the carrier ceases operations at that airport, provided that the slot has not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this § 93.227; and

(ii) 30 days after the parties to a proposed transfer of any such slot comply with requests for additional information by a Federal government agency in connection with an antitrust, economic impact, or similar investigation of the transfer, provided that-

(A) The original notice of the transfer is filed with the Federal agency within 30 days after the carrier ceases operation at the airport;

(B) The request for additional information is made within 10 days of the filing of the notice by the carrier;

(C) The carrier submits the additional information to the Federal agency within 15 days of the request by such agency; and

(D) Any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this § 93.227.

(e) Persons having slots withdrawn pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must cease all use of those slots upon receipt of notice from the FAA.

(f) Persons holding slots but not using them pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) may lease those slots for use by others. A slot obtained in a lottery may not be leased after the expiration of the applicable time period specified in paragraph (b) of this section unless it has been operated for a 2-month period at least 65 percent of the time by the operator which obtained it in the lottery.

(g) This section does not apply to slots used for the operations described in § 93.217 (a)(1) except that a U.S. air carrier or commuter operator required to file a report under paragraph (i) of this section shall include all slots operated at the airport, including slots described in § 93.217 (a)(1).

(h) Within 30 days after an operator files for protection under the Federal bankruptcy laws, the FAA shall recall any slots of that operator, if- (1) the slots were formerly used for essential air service and (2) the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines those slots are required to provide substitute essential air service to or from the same points.

(i) Every air carrier and commuter operator or other person holding a slot at a high density airport shall, within 14 days after the last day of the 2-month period beginning January 1, 1986, and every 2 months thereafter, forward, in writing, to the address identified in § 93.221 (a)(1), a list of all slots held by the air carrier, commuter operator or other person along with a listing of which air carrier or commuter operator actually operated the slot for each day of the 2-month period. The report shall identify the flight number for which the slot was used and the equipment used, and shall identify the flight as an arrival or departure. The report shall identify any common ownership or control of, by, or with any other carrier as defined in § 93.213 (c) of this subpart. The report shall be signed by a senior official of the air carrier or commuter operator. If the slot is held by an "other person," the report must be signed by an official representative.

(j) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may waive the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section in the event of a highly unusual and unpredictable condition which is beyond the control of the slot-holder and which exists for a period of 9 or more days. Examples of conditions which could justify waiver under this paragraph are weather conditions which result in the restricted operation of an airport for an extended period of time or the grounding of an aircraft type.

(k) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may, upon request, grant a waiver from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for a slot used for the domestic segment of an intercontinental all-cargo flight. To qualify for a waiver, a carrier must operate the slot a substantial percentage of the time and must return the slot to the FAA in advance for the time periods it will not be used.

(l) The FAA will treat as used any slot held by a carrier at a High Density Traffic Airport on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving Day, and the period from December 24 through the first Saturday in January.

[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37315, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-71, 59 FR 58771, Nov. 15, 1994]

This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the operation of aircraft to or from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport.

No person may operate an aircraft nonstop in air transportation between Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport and another airport that is more than 1,250 miles away from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport.

This subpart prescribes special operating rules for all persons operating aircraft in the following airspace, designated as the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area: That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°55′12″ N., Long. 112°04′05″ W.; east to Lat. 35°55′30″ N., Long. 111°45′00″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′02″ N., Long. 111°36′03″ W.; north to Lat. 36°15′30″ N., Long. 111°36′06″ W.; to Lat. 36°24′49″ N., Long. 111°47′45″ W.; to Lat. 36°52′23″ N., Long. 111°33′10″ W.; west-northwest to Lat. 36°53′37″ N., Long. 111°38′29″ W.; southwest to Lat. 36°35′02″ N., Long. 111°53′28″ W.; to Lat. 36°21′30″ N., Long. 112°00′03″ W.; west-northwest to Lat. 36°30′30″ N., Long. 112°35′59″ W.; southwest to Lat. 36°24′46″ N., Long. 112°51′10″ W., thence west along the boundary of Grand Canyon National Park (GCNP) to Lat. 36°14′08″ N., Long. 113°10′07″ W.; west-southwest to Lat. 36°09′30″ N., Long. 114°03′03″ W.; southeast to Lat. 36°05′11″ N., Long. 113°58′46″ W.; thence south along the boundary of GCNP to Lat. 35°58′23″ N., Long. 113°54′14″ W.; north to Lat. 36°00′10″ N., Long. 113°53′48″ W.; northeast to Lat. 36°02′14″ N., Long. 113°50′16″ W.; to Lat. 36°02′17″ N., Long. 113°53′48″ W.; northeast to Lat. 36°02′14″ N., Long. 113°50′16″ W.; to Lat. 36°02′17″ N., Long. 113°49′11″ W.; southeast to Lat. 36°01′22″ N., Long. 113°48′21″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′15″ N., Long. 113°47′13″ W.; to Lat. 35°57′51″ N., Long. 113°46′01″ W.; to Lat. 35°57′45″ N., Long. 113°45′23″ W.; southwest to Lat. 35°54′48″ N., Long. 113°50′24″ W.; southeast to Lat. 35°41′01″ N., Long. 113°35′27″ W.; thence clockwise via the 4.2-nautical mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to Lat. 36°38′53″ N., Long. 113°27′49″ W.; northeast to Lat. 35°42′58″ N., Long. 113°10′57″ W.; north to Lat. 35°57′51″ N., Long. 113°11′06″ W.; east to Lat. 35°57′44″ N., Long. 112°14′04″ W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference point (Lat. 35°57′08″ N., Long. 112°08′49″ W.) to the point of origin.

[Docket 5926, 65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000]

For the purposes of this subpart:

Allocation means authorization to conduct a commercial air tour in the Grand Canyon National Park (GCNP) Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA).

Commercial air tour means any flight conducted for compensation or hire in a powered aircraft where a purpose of the flight is sightseeing. If the operator of a flight asserts that the flight is not a commercial air tour, factors that can be considered by the Administrator in making a determination of whether the flight is a commercial air tour include, but are not limited to-

(1) Whether there was a holding out to the public of willingness to conduct a sightseeing flight for compensation or hire;

(2) Whether a narrative was provided that referred to areas or points of interest on the surface;

(3) The area of operation;

(4) The frequency of flights;

(5) The route of flight;

(6) The inclusion of sightseeing flights as part of any travel arrangement package; or

(7) Whether the flight in question would or would not have been canceled based on poor visibility of the surface.

Commercial Special Flight Rules Area Operation means any portion of any flight within the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area that is conducted by a certificate holder that has operations specifications authorizing flights within the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area. This term does not include operations conducted under an FAA Form 7711-1, Certificate of Waiver or Authorization. For more information on commercial special flight rules area operations, see "Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area (GCNP SFRA) Procedures Manual," which is available online or from the responsible Flight Standards Office.

GCNP quiet aircraft technology designation means an aircraft that is subject to § 93.301 and has been shown to comply with the noise limit specified in appendix A of this part.

Number of passenger seats means the number of passenger seats for which an individual aircraft is configured.

Park means Grand Canyon National Park.

Special Flight Rules Area means the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]

Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office for a purpose listed in § 93.309, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area within the following flight-free zones:

(a) Desert View Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′58″ N., Long. 111°52′47″ W.; thence east to Lat. 36°00′00″ N., Long. 111°51′04″ W.; thence north to 36°00′24″ N., Long. 111°51′04″ W.; thence east to 36°00′24″ N., Long. 111°45′44″ W.; thence north along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36°14′05″ N., Long. 111°48′34″ W.; thence southwest to Lat. 36°12′06″ N., Long. 111°51′14″ W.; to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 nautical mile of the western boundary of the zone. The corridor to the west between the Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-free Zones, is designated the "Zuni Point Corridor." This corridor is 2 nautical miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles wide for transient and general aviation operations.

(b) Bright Angel Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°58′39″ N., Long. 111°55′43″ W.; north to Lat. 36°12′41″ N., Long. 111°53′54″ W.; northwest to Lat. 36°18′18″ N., Long. 111°58′15″ W.; thence west along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36°20′11″ N., Long. 112°06′25″ W.; south-southwest to Lat. 36°09′31″ N., Long. 112°11′15″ W.; to Lat. 36°04′16″ N., Long. 112°17′20″ W.; thence southeast along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36°01′54″ N., Long. 112°11′24″ W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference point (Lat. 35°57′08″ N., Long. 112°08′49″ W.) to Lat. 35°59′37″ N., Long. 112°04′29″ W.; thence east along the GCNP boundary to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 nautical mile of the eastern boundary or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles of the northwestern boundary. The corridor to the east, between this flight-free zone and the Desert View Flight-free Zone, is designated the "Zuni Point Corridor." The corridor to the west, between the Bright Angel and Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zones, is designated the "Dragon Corridor." This corridor is 2 nautical miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles wide for transient and general aviation operations. The Bright Angel Flight-free Zone does not include the following airspace designated as the Bright Angel Corridor: That airspace one-half nautical mile on either side of a line extending from Lat. 36°14′57″ N., Long. 112°08′45″ W. and Lat. 36°15′01″ N., Long. 111°55′39″ W.

(c) Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36°05′44″ N., Long. 112°19′27″ W.; north-northeast to Lat. 36°10′49″ N., Long. 112°13′19″ W.; to Lat. 36°21′02″ N., Long. 112°08′47″ W.; thence west and south along the GCNP boundary to Lat 36°10′58″ N., Long. 113°08′35″ W.; south to Lat. 36°10′12″ N., Long. 113°08′34″ W.; thence in an easterly direction along the park boundary to the point of origin; but not including the following airspace designated as the "Tuckup Corridor": at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line extending between Lat. 36°24′42″ N., Long. 112°48′47″ W. and Lat. 36°14′17″ N., Long. 112°48′31″ W. The airspace designated as the "Fossil Canyon Corridor" is also excluded from the Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line extending between Lat. 36°16′26″ N., Long. 112°34′35″ W. and Lat. 36°22′51″ N., Long. 112°18′18″ W. The Fossil Canyon Corridor is to be used for transient and general aviation operations only.

(d) Sanup Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 8,000 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′32″ N., Long. 113°20′28″ W.; west to Lat. 36°00′55″ N., Long. 113°42′09″ W.; southeast to Lat. 35°59′57″ N., Long. 113°41′09″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′09″ N., Long. 113°40′53″ W.; to Lat. 35°58′45″ N., Long. 113°40′15″ W.; to Lat. 35°57′52″ N., Long. 113°39′34″ W.; to Lat. 35°56′44″ N., Long. 113°39′07″ W.; to Lat. 35°56′04″ N., Long. 113°39′20″ W.; to Lat. 35°55′02″ N., Long. 113°40′43″ W.; to Lat. 35°54′47″ N., Long. 113°40′51″ W.; southeast to Lat. 35°50′16″ N., Long. 113°37′13″ W.; thence along the park boundary to the point of origin.

[Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]

Except in an emergency, or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office for a purpose listed in § 93.309, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area at an altitude lower than the following:

(a) Minimum sector altitudes- (1) Commercial air tours- (i) Marble Canyon Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL.

(ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 7,500 feet MSL.

(iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet MSL.

(iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 5,000 feet MSL.

(2) Transient and general aviation operations- (i) Marble Canyon Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 8,000 feet MSL.

(ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 10,000 feet MSL.

(iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 9,000 feet MSL.

(iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 8,000 feet MSL.

(b) Minimum corridor altitudes- (1) Commercial air tours- (i) Zuni Point Corridors. 7,500 feet MSL.

(ii) Dragon Corridor. 7,500 feet MSL.

(2) Transient and general aviation operations- (i) Zuni Point Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.

(ii) Dragon Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.

(iii) Tuckup Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.

(iv) Fossil Canyon Corridor. 10,500 feet

[Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]

Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area unless the operation is conducted in accordance with the following procedures. (Note: The following procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsibility or compliance with the minimum safe altitude requirements specified in § 91.119 of this chapter.):

(a) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft or terrain remain clear of the flight-free zones described in § 93.305;

(b) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft or terrain, proceed through the Zuni Point, Dragon, Tuckup, and Fossil Canyon Flight Corridors described in § 93.305 at the following altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards Office:

(1) Northbound. 11,500 or 13,500 feet MSL.

(2) Southbound. 10,500 or 12,500 feet MSL.

(c) For operation in the flight-free zones described in § 93.305, or flight below the altitudes listed in § 93.307, is authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards Office and is conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in the areas described in § 93.305 or below the altitudes listed in § 93.307 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law enforcement, firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of persons in the vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or activities; or for aerial access to and maintenance of other property located within the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be issued on a continuing basis;

(d) Is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the operator's operations specifications and approved by the responsible Flight Standards Office in accordance with the provisions of this subpart;

(e) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center;

(f) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Grand Canyon Bar Ten Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, Marble Canyon Airstrip, or Tuweep Airstrip at an altitude less than 3,000 feet above airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that facility; or

(g) Is conducted under an instrument flight rules (IFR) clearance and the pilot is acting in accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may not be filed on a route or at an altitude that would require operation in an area described in § 93.305.

[Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]

Except in an emergency, when necessary for takeoff or landing, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office for a purpose listed in § 93.309 (c), no person may operate an aircraft within 500 feet of any terrain or structure located between the north and south rims of the Grand Canyon.

[Docket FAA-2018-0851, Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]

Except when in contact with the Grand Canyon National Park Airport Traffic Control Tower during arrival or departure or on a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area unless he monitors the appropriate frequency continuously while in that airspace.

Each person conducting commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations must be certificated in accordance with Part 119 for Part 135 or 121 operations and hold appropriate Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area operations specifications.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]

Unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office, no person may conduct a commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation in the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors during the following flight-free periods:

(a) Summer season (May 1-September 30)-6 p.m. to 8 a.m. daily; and

(b) Winter season (October 1-April 30)-5 p.m. to 9 a.m. daily.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, Sept. 24, 2018]

(a) Unless excepted under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section, no certificate holder certificated in accordance with part 119 for part 121 or 135 operations may conduct more commercial air tours in the Grand Canyon National Park in any calendar year than the number of allocations specified on the certificate holder's operations specifications.

(b) The Administrator determines the number of initial allocations for each certificate holder based on the total number of commercial air tours conducted by the certificate holder and reported to the FAA during the period beginning on May 1, 1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, unless excepted under paragraph (g).

(c) Certificate holders who conducted commercial air tours during the base year and reported them to the FAA receive an initial allocation.

(d) A certificate holder must use one allocation for each flight that is a commercial air tour, unless excepted under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section.

(e) Each certificate holder's operation specifications will identify the following information, as applicable:

(1) Total SFRA allocations; and

(2) Dragon corridor and Zuni Point corridor allocations.

(f) Certificate holders satisfying the requirements of § 93.315 of this subpart are not required to use a commercial air tour allocation for each commercial air tour flight in the GCNP SFRA provided the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The certificate holder conducts its operations in conformance with the routes and airspace authorizations as specified in its Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area operations specifications;

(2) The certificate holder must have executed a written contract with the Hualapai Indian Nation which grants the certificate holder a trespass permit and specifies the maximum number of flights to be permitted to land at Grand Canyon West Airport and at other sites located in the vicinity of that airport and operates in compliance with that contract; and

(3) The certificate holder must have a valid operations specification that authorizes the certificate holder to conduct the operations specified in the contract with the Hualapai Indian Nation and specifically approves the number of operations that may transit the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area under this exception.

(g) Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours at or above 14,500 feet MSL but below 18,000 feet MSL who did not receive initial allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the base year may operate without an allocation when conducting air tours at those altitudes. Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours in the area affected by the eastward shift of the SFRA who did not receive initial allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the base year may continue to operate on the specified routes without an allocation in the area bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes east and longitude line 111 degrees 36 minutes east. This exception does not include operation in the Zuni Point corridor.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]

(a) Allocations are not a property interest; they are an operating privilege subject to absolute FAA control.

(b) Allocations are subject to the following conditions:

(1) The Administrator will re-authorize and re-distribute allocations no earlier than two years from the effective date of this rule.

(2) Allocations that are held by the FAA at the time of reallocation may be distributed among remaining certificate holders, proportionate to the size of each certificate holder's allocation.

(3) The aggregate SFRA allocations will not exceed the number of operations reported to the FAA for the base year beginning on May 1, 1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, except as adjusted to incorporate operations occurring for the base year of April 1, 2000 and ending on March 31, 2001, that operate at or above 14,500 feet MSL and below 18,000 feet MSL and operations in the area affected by the eastward shift of the SFRA bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes east to longitude 111 degrees 36 minutes east.

(4) Allocations may be transferred among Part 135 or Part 121 certificate holders, subject to all of the following:

(i) Such transactions are subject to all other applicable requirements of this chapter.

(ii) Allocations authorizing commercial air tours outside the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors may not be transferred into the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors. Allocations authorizing commercial air tours within the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors may be transferred outside of the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors.

(iii) A certificate holder must notify in writing the responsible Flight Standards Office within 10 calendar days of a transfer of allocations. This notification must identify the parties involved, the type of transfer (permanent or temporary) and the number of allocations transferred. Permanent transfers are not effective until the responsible Flight Standards Office reissues the operations specifications reflecting the transfer. Temporary transfers are effective upon notification.

(5) An allocation will revert to the FAA upon voluntary cessation of commercial air tours within the SFRA for any consecutive 180-day period unless the certificate holder notifies the FSDO in writing, prior to the expiration of the 180-daytime period, of the following: the reason why the certificate holder has not conducted any commercial air tours during the consecutive 180-day period; and the date the certificate holder intends on resuming commercial air tours operations. The FSDO will notify the certificate holder of any extension to the consecutive 180-days. A certificate holder may be granted one extension.

(6) The FAA retains the right to re-distribute, reduce, or revoke allocations based on:

(i) Efficiency of airspace;

(ii) Voluntary surrender of allocations;

(iii) Involuntary cessation of operations; and

(iv) Aviation safety.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000 as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, Sept. 24, 2018]

(a) Each certificate holder must submit in writing, within 30 days of the end of each calendar quarter, the total number of commercial SFRA operations conducted for that quarter. Quarterly reports must be filed with the responsible Flight Standards Office.

(b) Each quarterly report must contain the following information.

(1) Make and model of aircraft;

(2) Identification number (registration number) for each aircraft;

(3) Departure airport for each segment flown;

(4) Departure date and actual Universal Coordinated Time, as applicable for each segment flown;

(5) Type of operation; and

(6) Route(s) flown.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000 as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, Sept. 24, 2018]

This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft operating in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area. Because identification and control of aircraft is required for reasons of national security, the areas described in this subpart constitute national defense airspace. The purpose of establishing this area is to facilitate the tracking of, and communication with, aircraft to deter persons who would use an aircraft as a weapon, or as a means of delivering weapons, to conduct an attack on persons, property, or buildings in the area. This subpart applies to pilots conducting any type of flight operations in the airspace designated as the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) (as defined in § 93.335), which includes the airspace designated as the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) (as defined in § 93.335).

(a) Any violation. The FAA may take civil enforcement action against a pilot for violations, whether inadvertent or intentional, including imposition of civil penalties and suspension or revocation of airmen's certificates.

(b) Knowing or willful violations. The DC FRZ and DC SFRA were established for reasons of national security under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 40103 (b)(3). Areas established by the FAA under that authority constitute "national defense airspace" as that term is used in 49 U.S.C. 46307. In addition to being subject to the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, persons who knowingly or willfully violate national defense airspace established pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 40103 (b)(3) may be subject to criminal prosecution.

For purposes of this subpart-

DC FRZ flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and through the DC FRZ. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue services.

DC SFRA flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and through the DC SFRA. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue services.

Fringe airports are the following airports located near the outer boundary of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area: Barnes (MD47), Flying M Farms (MD77), Mountain Road (MD43), Robinson (MD14), and Skyview (51VA).

Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) is an area bounded by a line beginning at the Washington VOR/DME (DCA) 311° radial at 15 nautical miles (NM) (Lat. 38°59′31″ N., Long. 077°18′30″ W.); then clockwise along the DCA 15 nautical mile arc to the DCA 002° radial at 15 NM (Lat. 39°06′28″ N., Long 077°04′32″ W.); then southeast via a line drawn to the DCA 049° radial at 14 NM (Lat. 39°02′18″ N., Long. 076°50′38″ W.); thence south via a line drawn to the DCA 064° radial at 13 NM (Lat. 38°59′01″ N., Long. 076°48′32″ W.); thence clockwise along the 13 NM arc to the DCA 276° radial at 13 NM (Lat.38°50′53″ N., Long 077°18′48″ W.); thence north to the point of beginning, excluding the airspace within a one nautical mile radius of the Freeway Airport, W00, Mitchellville, MD from the surface up to but not including flight level (FL) 180. The DC FRZ is within and part of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area SFRA.

Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) is an area of airspace over the surface of the earth where the ready identification, location, and control of aircraft is required in the interests of national security. Specifically, the DC SFRA is that airspace, from the surface to, but not including, FL 180, within a 30-mile radius of Lat. 38°51′34″ N., Long. 077°02′11″ W., or the DCA VOR/DME. The DC SFRA includes the DC FRZ.

[Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008; Amdt. 93-91, 73 FR 79314, Dec. 29, 2008]

A pilot conducting any type of flight operation in the DC SFRA must comply with the restrictions listed in this subpart and all special instructions issued by the FAA in the interest of national security. Those special instructions may be issued in any manner the FAA considers appropriate, including a NOTAM. Additionally, a pilot must comply with all of the applicable requirements of this chapter.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and in § 93.345, or unless authorized by Air Traffic Control, no pilot may operate an aircraft, including an ultralight vehicle or any civil aircraft or public aircraft, in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, unless-

(1) The aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communicating with Air Traffic Control on appropriate radio frequencies;

(2) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, the pilot establishes two-way radio communications with the appropriate Air Traffic Control facility and maintains such communications while operating the aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ;

(3) The aircraft is equipped with an operating automatic altitude reporting transponder;

(4) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, the pilot obtains and transmits a discrete transponder code from Air Traffic Control, and the aircraft's transponder continues to transmit the assigned code while operating within the DC SFRA;

(5) For VFR operations, the pilot must file and activate a DC FRZ or DC SFRA flight plan by obtaining a discrete transponder code. The flight plan is closed upon landing at an airport within the DC SFRA or when the aircraft exits the DC SFRA;

(6) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through the Washington, DC Tri-Area Class B Airspace Area, the pilot receives a specific Air Traffic Control clearance to operate in the Class B airspace area; and

(7) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through Class D airspace area that is within the DC SFRA, the pilot complies with § 91.129 of this chapter.

(b) Paragraph (a) (5) of this section does not apply to operators of Department of Defense aircraft, law enforcement operations, or lifeguard or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization, if the flight crew is in contact with Air Traffic Control and is transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code.

(c) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that does not have an airport traffic control tower, a pilot must-

(1) File a DC SFRA flight plan for traffic pattern work;

(2) Communicate traffic pattern position via the published Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF);

(3) Monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0, if the aircraft is suitably equipped;

(4) Obtain and transmit the Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code; and

(5) When exiting the VFR traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs (a) (1) through (a) (7) of this section.

(d) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that has an operating airport traffic control tower, a pilot must-

(1) Before departure or before entering the traffic pattern, request to remain in the traffic pattern;

(2) Remain in two-way radio communications with the tower. If the aircraft is suitably equipped, the pilot must also monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0;

(3) Continuously operate the aircraft transponder on code 1234 unless Air Traffic Control assigns a different code; and

(4) Before exiting the traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs (a) (1) through (a) (7) of this section.

(e) Pilots must transmit the assigned transponder code. No pilot may use transponder code 1200 while in the DC SFRA.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no pilot may conduct any flight operation under part 91, 101, 103, 105, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter in the DC FRZ, unless the specific flight is operating under an FAA/TSA authorization.

(b) Department of Defense (DOD) operations, law enforcement operations, and lifeguard or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization are excepted from the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section if the pilot is in contact with Air Traffic Control and operates the aircraft transponder on an Air Traffic Control-assigned beacon code.

(c) The following aircraft operations are permitted in the DC FRZ:

(1) Aircraft operations under the DCA Access Standard Security Program (DASSP) (49 CFR part 1562) with a Transportation Security Administration (TSA) flight authorization.

(2) Law enforcement and other U.S. Federal aircraft operations with prior FAA approval.

(3) Foreign-operated military and state aircraft operations with a State Department-authorized diplomatic clearance, with State Department notification to the FAA and TSA.

(4) Federal, State, Federal DOD contract, local government agency aircraft operations and part 121, 129 or 135 air carrier flights with TSA-approved full aircraft operator standard security programs/procedures, if operating with DOD permission and notification to the FAA and the National Capital Regional Coordination Center (NCRCC). These flights may land and depart Andrews Air Force Base, MD, with prior permission, if required.

(5) Aircraft operations maintaining radio contact with Air Traffic Control and continuously transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code. The pilot must monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0.

(d) Before departing from an airport within the DC FRZ, or before entering the DC FRZ, all aircraft, except DOD, law enforcement, and lifeguard or air ambulance aircraft operating under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization must file and activate an IFR or a DC FRZ flight plan and transmit a discrete transponder code assigned by an Air Traffic Control facility. Aircraft must transmit the discrete transponder code at all times while in the DC FRZ or DC SFRA.

[Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 93-91A, 83 FR 13411, Mar. 29, 2018]

(a) A pilot may not operate an aircraft to or from College Park Airport, MD, Potomac Airfield, MD, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field Airport, MD unless-

(1) The aircraft and its crew and passengers comply with security rules issued by the TSA in 49 CFR part 1562, subpart A;

(2) Before departing, the pilot files an IFR or DC FRZ flight plan with the Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center for each departure and arrival from/to College Park, Potomac Airfield, and Washington Executive/Hyde Field airports, whether or not the aircraft makes an intermediate stop;

(3) When filing a flight plan with the Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center, the pilot identifies himself or herself by providing the assigned pilot identification code. The Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center will accept the flight plan only after verifying the code; and

(4) The pilot complies with the applicable IFR or VFR egress procedures in paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of this section.

(b) If using IFR procedures, a pilot must-

(1) Obtain an Air Traffic Control clearance from the Potomac TRACON; and

(2) Comply with Air Traffic Control departure instructions from Washington Executive/Hyde Field, Potomac Airport, or College Park Airport. The pilot must then proceed on the Air Traffic Control-assigned course and remain clear of the DC FRZ.

(c) If using VFR egress procedures, a pilot must-

(1) Depart as instructed by Air Traffic Control and expect a heading directly out of the DC FRZ until the pilot establishes two-way radio communication with Potomac Approach; and

(2) Operate as assigned by Air Traffic Control until clear of the DC FRZ, the DC SFRA, and the Class B or Class D airspace area.

(d) If using VFR ingress procedures, the aircraft must remain outside the DC SFRA until the pilot establishes communications with Air Traffic Control and receives authorization for the aircraft to enter the DC SFRA.

(e) VFR arrivals:

(1) If landing at College Park Airport a pilot may receive routing via the vicinity of Freeway Airport; or

(2) If landing at Washington Executive/Hyde Field or Potomac Airport, the pilot may receive routing via the vicinity of Maryland Airport or the Nottingham VORTAC.

[Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 93-91A, 83 FR 13411, Mar. 29, 2018]

(a) A pilot may depart from a fringe airport as defined in § 93.335 without filing a flight plan or communicating with Air Traffic Control, unless requested, provided:

(1) The aircraft's transponder transmits code 1205;

(2) The pilot exits the DC SFRA by the most direct route before proceeding on course; and

(3) The pilot monitors VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0.

(b) No pilot may operate an aircraft arriving at a fringe airport or transit the DC SFRA unless that pilot complies with the DC SFRA operating procedures in this subpart.

For the purposes of this subpart only the following definitions apply:

(a) Local operation. Any aircraft within the Hudson River Exclusion that is conducting an operation other than as described in paragraph (b) of this section. Local operations include but are not limited to operations for sightseeing, electronic news gathering, and law enforcement.

(b) Transient operation. Aircraft transiting the entire length of the Hudson River Class B Exclusion, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, from one end to the other.

(c) New York Class B airspace East River Exclusion is that airspace below 1,500 feet MSL between the east and west banks of, and overlying, the East River beginning at lat. 40°38′39″ N., long. 74°02′03″ W., thence north along a line drawn direct to the southwestern tip of Governors Island, thence north along a line direct to the southwest tip of Manhattan Island, thence north along the west bank of the East River to the LGA VOR/DME 6-mile arc, thence counterclockwise along the 6-mile arc to the east bank of the East River, thence south along the east bank of the East River to the point of beginning at lat. 40°38′39″ N., long 74°02′03″ W.; and that airspace 1,100 feet MSL and below between the east and west banks of, and overlying the East River, from the LGA VOR/DME 6-mile arc to the north tip of Roosevelt Island.

(d) New York Class B airspace Hudson River Exclusion is that area from the surface up to but not including the overlying floor of the New York Class B airspace area, between the east and west banks of, and overlying, the Hudson River within the area beginning north of LaGuardia Airport on the west bank of the Hudson River at lat. 40°57′45″ N., long. 73°54′48″ W. (near Alpine Tower), thence south along the west bank of the Hudson River to intersect the Colts Neck VOR/DME 012° radial, thence southwest along the Colts Neck 012° radial to the Hudson River shoreline, thence south along the shoreline to the Verrazano-Narrows Bridge, thence east along the Bridge to the east bank of the Hudson River, thence north along the east bank of the Hudson River to lat. 40°38′39″ N., long. 74°02′03″ W., thence north along a line drawn direct to the southwesternmost point of Governors Island, thence north along a line drawn direct to the southwest tip of Manhattan Island, thence north along the east bank of the Hudson River to the LGA VOR/DME 11-mile arc, north of LaGuardia Airport, thence counterclockwise along the 11-mile arc to lat. 40°57′54″ N., long. 73°54′23″ W., thence to the point of beginning.

Pilots must adhere to the following requirements:

(a) Maintain an indicated airspeed not to exceed 140 knots.

(b) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights shall be on, if equipped. Use of landing lights is recommended.

(c) Self announce position on the appropriate radio frequency for the East River or Hudson River as depicted on the New York VFR Terminal Area Chart (TAC) and/or New York Helicopter Route Chart.

(d) Have a current New York TAC chart and/or New York Helicopter Route Chart in the aircraft and be familiar with the information contained therein.

In addition to the requirements in § 93.351, the following procedures apply:

(a) Pilots must self announce, at the charted mandatory reporting points, the following information: aircraft type, current position, direction of flight, and altitude.

(b) Pilots must fly along the west shoreline of the Hudson River when southbound, and along the east shoreline of the Hudson River when northbound; while remaining within the boundaries of the Hudson River Exclusion as defined in § 93.350 (d).

(c) Aircraft transiting the area within the Hudson River Exclusion in accordance with § 93.350 (b) must transit the Hudson River Exclusion at or above an altitude of 1,000 feet MSL up to, but not including, the floor of the overlying Class B airspace.

No person may operate an airplane in the East River Exclusion extending from the southwestern tip of Governors Island to the north tip of Roosevelt Island except:

(a) Seaplanes landing on or taking off from the river; or

(b) Airplanes authorized by ATC. Pilots must contact LaGuardia Airport Traffic Control Tower prior to Governors Island for authorization.

This subpart prescribes rules applicable to helicopters or powered-lift operating in the vertical-lift flight mode operating in the Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Flight Restrictions Area described in § 93.373.

The Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Flight Restrictions Area is designated as that airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 1,500 feet MSL over the Potomac River near Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport, Arlington, VA beginning at 38°53′04″ N, 77°03′19″ W; to 38°52′48″ N, 77°02′48″ W; to 38°52′44″ N, 77°01′55″ W; to 38°52′34″ N, 77°01′42″ W; to 38°52′23″ N, 77°01′33″ W; to 38°51′54″ N, 77°01′24″ W; to 38°50′43″ N, 77°01′16″ W; to 38°50′07″ N, 77°01′27″ W; to 38°49′14″ N, 77°01′36″ W; to 38°48′37″ N, 77°01′36″ W; to 38°47′37″ N, 77°01′23″ W; to 38°47′37″ N, 77°02′48″ W; to 38°50′17″ N, 77°02′42″ W; to 38°50′30″ N, 77°02′44″ W; to 38°50′49″ N, 77°02′34″ W; to 38°50′59″ N, 77°02′33″ W; to 38°51′07″ N, 77°02′51″ W; to 38°52′07″ N, 77°03′02″ W; to 38°52′35″ N, 77°03′07″ W; to the point of beginning.

(a) No person may operate a helicopter or powered-lift operating in the vertical-lift flight mode in the Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Flight Restrictions Area unless the person is conducting an essential operation as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Essential operations are operations conducted for the following purposes:

(1) Lifesaving medical;

(2) Active law enforcement involving responses to ongoing criminal activity;

(3) Active national security directly involving national defense or counterintelligence;

(4) Continuity activities for the Federal government to ensure the continued operation of essential governmental functions under a broad range of circumstances, including all-hazard emergencies; or

(5) Transportation of the President or Vice President of the United States.

(c) Proficiency evaluation flights, other transportation of personnel not directly involved in an essential operation, and routine training operations are not essential operations as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section.